So now we turn away from
identical occurrences to the other feminine singular arche constructions (we will not spend any more time on the LXX
from now on).
First let us look at the other
feminine singular examples that we excluded last time since they lacked the
preposition “en”. As we do this, we will discover an additional meaning of the
word. For whereas we always translate en
arche by “in the beginning” in
English, arche (and other cases) can sometimes mean “rule” or even “ruler”.
Here then are the other New Testament examples of arche without “en”:
Matthew 24:8 and
Mark 13:8 (nominative singular)
GRK: δὲ ταῦτα ἀρχὴ ὠδίνων
NAS: these things are [the] beginning of birth pangs
Mark 1:1 (nominative singular)
GRK: ΑΡΧΗ τοῦ εὐαγγελίου
NAS: [The] beginning of the gospel of Jesus
EXCEPTION Luke 20:20 (dative singular)
GRK: αὐτὸν τῇ ἀρχῇ καὶ τῇ
NAS: that they [could] deliver Him to the rule and the authority
GRK: αὐτὸν τῇ ἀρχῇ καὶ τῇ
NAS: that they [could] deliver Him to the rule and the authority
EXCEPTION? Colossians
1:18 (nominative singular)
GRK: ἐστιν [ἡ] ἀρχή πρωτότοκος ἐκ
NAS: the church; and He is the/[the] beginning, the firstborn
GRK: ἐστιν [ἡ] ἀρχή πρωτότοκος ἐκ
NAS: the church; and He is the/[the] beginning, the firstborn
EXCEPTION Revelation
3:14 (nominative singular)
GRK: ἀληθινός ἡ ἀρχὴ τῆς κτίσεως
NAS: Witness, the Beginning of the creation
GRK: ἀληθινός ἡ ἀρχὴ τῆς κτίσεως
NAS: Witness, the Beginning of the creation
EXCEPTION Revelation
21:6 & 22:13 (nominative singular)
GRK: ἡ ἀρχὴ καὶ τὸ…
NAS: the beginning and the end.
GRK: ἡ ἀρχὴ καὶ τὸ…
NAS: the beginning and the end.
My assurances of consistent
dropping of the article are looking seriously doubtful on the face evidence of
these passages. Of the 8 other feminine singular arche verses, only three seem to maintain the “rule” that the “the”
is implied and not written: that’s less than half.
No it’s not. So far we have
seen an actual total of 12 feminine singular occurrences: 7 of these imply the
article silently. Of these 7, 4 state “en arche”. Still, you might say 7 out of
12 is still not that impressive evidence. Actually, it is meaningless. We have
already established that exact matches are 100% consistent. It could well be
argued that without the preposition
“en”, that the definite article is simply optional. As a Greek writer of
antiquity, you could throw it in or leave it out and no-one would mind or
notice either way. My case would not be jeopardised.
But, despite that safety net, we can actually connect the articles to a specific function in at least three of the five
“exceptions”. Furthermore, as we look at other configurations of arche, we will see that a very strong
case will still emerge for anarthrous arche
notwithstanding the exempting circumstances we will look at now.
Firstly, Luke 20:20, is
consistently translated into English by “rule”, not “beginning”. In a later
post we will do a study on the Greek words for “ruler”, whereupon we will see
that this meaning is highly obedient to the more common rules: anarthrous =
indefinite & articular = definite. So Luke 20:20 is constructed with the
article because “the rule” behaves differently to “the beginning”.
Secondly, Colossians 1:18. Unfortunately this verse will not get us very far, as the manuscripts do not agree: some have the definite article, and some don't. Furthermore, the presence or absence is not strongly contended by textual critics who focus their energies elsewhere so it is difficult to say more than the immediate appearance is that both options are viable. For me it is also impossible to decide.
If the article is present, arche might well be functioning qualitatively or again as “the ruler”. See how in Greek it immediately precedes the word for “firstborn”. In English we separate the two with a comma (“…he is the beginning, the firstborn from among the dead”), but this qualitative use could allow for the article to be attached to "the firstborn" rather than "the beginning". However, an even more plausible explanation can be found, in my eyes, when we integrate how arche is generally used in in this epistle. Bearing in mind the shrinking numbers of New Testament scholars still attributing the epistle to genuine Pauline authorship, we should not take lightly that ALL the other declinations of arche in Colossians refer to rule, rulers, principalities, and so on. Colossians 1:18 would be the only exception. If this case were to be worked out more fully, then a translation could legitimately go more along the lines of he is the ruler and the firstborn from among the dead. In either case, the inclusion of the article could thus be explained.
If the article is not present, then Colossians 1:18 would definitely read THE beginning and would be in line with the overall New Testament usage that we are observing.
If the article is present, arche might well be functioning qualitatively or again as “the ruler”. See how in Greek it immediately precedes the word for “firstborn”. In English we separate the two with a comma (“…he is the beginning, the firstborn from among the dead”), but this qualitative use could allow for the article to be attached to "the firstborn" rather than "the beginning". However, an even more plausible explanation can be found, in my eyes, when we integrate how arche is generally used in in this epistle. Bearing in mind the shrinking numbers of New Testament scholars still attributing the epistle to genuine Pauline authorship, we should not take lightly that ALL the other declinations of arche in Colossians refer to rule, rulers, principalities, and so on. Colossians 1:18 would be the only exception. If this case were to be worked out more fully, then a translation could legitimately go more along the lines of he is the ruler and the firstborn from among the dead. In either case, the inclusion of the article could thus be explained.
If the article is not present, then Colossians 1:18 would definitely read THE beginning and would be in line with the overall New Testament usage that we are observing.
The final explicable articular arche is Revelation 3:14. This time, a whole
swathe of translations also make the connection with the idea of “the ruler” or
“the head”: ERV, EXB, ICB, NCV, NIRV, NIV, WEB, YLT. The NIV gives: “the ruler
of God’s creation”. Interestingly, The Message has chosen to echo Proverbs 8
language and go with the qualitative “first”, which is probably not quite right.
So in actual fact we are only
really left with one phrase from the very end of the last book of the Bible, in
Revelation 21:6 and 22:13: “the beginning and the end”, where both "beginning" and "end" are articular. I would not want to presumptuously
assume that there is in fact nothing to be said about the articular use here.
One possibility that will later emerge when we look at Hebrews is that within the writings of one author, a preferred expression
might be adopted for particular purposes. On the assumption that it is
at least possible, many would say distinctly possible, that the author of
Revelation may not be the same human being as the author of John’s gospel, we might
note that there are simply no occurrences
of anarthrous arche in any declination, whether meaning beginning or rule/ruler. Another explanation might be an attempt at keeping the powerful statement balanced; could it not
have appeared strange to emphasise the article of “the end” while omitting the
article of “the beginning”?
To sum up: without the preposition,
the singular arche does not follow
the implied article rule when used to mean “rule” or qualitatively. Usage in
Revelation is too limited to develop but opens the possibility to author
preference.
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